Sample Question Paper for class 12th
Biology (Annual Examination)
PRE BOARD EXAMINATION 2021
Class: XII
SUBJECT- BIOLOGY
(044)
Time: 3Hours
Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are
compulsory.
(ii) The question paper
has four sections: Section A, Section B, Section C and Section D. There are 33
questions in the question paper.
(iii) Section–A has 14
questions of 1 mark each and 02 case-based questions. Section–B has 9 questions
of 2 marks each. Section–C has 5 questions of 3 marks each and Section–D has 3
Questions of 5 marks
each. (iv)There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been
provided in some questions. A student has to attempt only one of the
alternatives in such questions. (v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly
labeled diagrams should be drawn.
SECTION A
1 A bilobed, dithecous anther has 50 microspore mother cells
per microsporangium. How many male gametophytes can this anther produce? (1)
2 Why are pollen grains produced in enormous quantity in
Maize? (1)
3 After a successful in vitro fertilization, the fertilized
egg begins to divide. Where is this egg transferred before it reaches the
8-celled stage and what is this technique called? (1)
4 What are the major components of human seminal plasma? (1)
5 If the sequence of the coding strand in transcription unit
is written as follows:
5’-ATGC ATGC ATGC ATGC ATGC ATGC ATG-3’ Write down the
sequence of mRNA. (1)
6. Differentiation
between “ZZ” and “XY” type of sex-determination mechanisms. (1)
7 In which direction, the new strand of DNA synthesized
during DNA replication. (1)
8 An extra chromosomal segment of circular DNA of a bacterium
is used to carry gene of interest into the host cell. What is the name given to
it? (1)
9 Name the species that can withstand a close range of
temperature? (1)
10 Mention the relationship where a species generates
poisonous particles which harm other species? (1)
11 Assertion: Trisomy is the condition in which a particular
chromosome is present in three copies in a diploid cell/ nucleus. (1)
Reason: Pedigree Analysis is the analysis of the
distribution and movement of trait in a series of generations of a family.
a. Both assertion and
reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
b. Both assertion and
reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
c. Assertion is true but
reason is false.
d. Both assertion and
reason are false
OR
Assertion: Genetic code
is universal:
Reason: Genetic code is
same for all organism:
a) If both the assertion
and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the
assertion
b) If both the assertion
and reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
assertion
c) If the assertion is
true but the reason is false
d) If both the assertion
and reason are false
e) If the assertion is
false but reason is true
12 Assertion: “Agrobacterium–mediated
genetic engineering transformation” in plants considered as natural genetic engineering (1)
Reason: Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a pathogen in many dicot plants. It is able
to deliver a piece of DNA (T–DNA) to transform normal plant cell into a tumor
and directs these tumor cells to produce the chemicals required by pathogen
a. Both assertion and
reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
b. Both assertion and
reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
c. Assertion is true but
reason is false.
d. Both assertion and
reason are false
13 Assertion: Calotropis produces highly poisonous cardiac
glycosides therefore they are not browsed by herbivores. (1)
Reason: If two species compete for the same resource,
they could avoid competition by choosing for instance different times for
feeding or different for aging patterns. This is known as resource
partitioning.
a. Both assertion and
reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
b. Both assertion and
reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
c. Assertion is true but
reason is false.
d. Both assertion and
reason are false
14 Assertion: A
mangrove tree growing in marshy place has pneumatophores (1)
Reason: pneumatophores help in better anchorage in
marshy soil
a. Both assertion &
reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
b. Both assertion and
reason are correct and reason is not correct explanation of assertion
c. Assertion is correct
but reason is incorrect
d. Both assertion and
reason is incorrect
15 Read the following
and answer any four questions from 15(i) to 15(v) given below:
(4)
What can you do to boost your immune system?
The idea of boosting
your immunity is enticing, but the ability to do so has proved elusive for
several reasons. The immune system is precisely that — a system, not a single
entity. To function well, it requires balance and harmony. There is still much
that researchers don't know about the intricacies and interconnectedness of the
immune response. For now, there are no
Scientifically proven
direct links between lifestyle and enhanced immune function. But that doesn't
mean the effects of lifestyle on the immune system aren't intriguing and
shouldn't be studied. Researchers are exploring the effects of diet, exercise,
age, psychological stress, and other factors on the immune response, both in
animals and in humans. In the meantime, general healthy living strategies are a
good way to start giving your immune system the upper hand.
(i) In the immune system, interferons are a part
of
(a) Physiological
barriers
(b) Cellular barriers
(c) Physical barriers
(d) Cytokine barriers.
(ii) Transplantation of
tissues/organs to save certain patients often fails due to rejection of such
tissues/organs by the patient. Which type of immune response is responsible for
such rejections?
(a) auto-immune response
(b) humoral immune
response
(c) Physiological immune
response
(d) cell-mediated immune
response4
(iii) Neutrophils,
basophil, lymphocytes, eosinophil and monocytes are examples of ________.
(a) Physical barrier
(b) Cellular barriers
(c) Cytokine barriers
(d) Physiological
barriers
(iv) Which of the
following conveys the longest-lasting immunity to an infectious
agent?
(a) Active immunity
(b) Passive immunity
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
(v) Which of the
following cells is involved in humoral immunity?
(a) T-cells
(b) B-cells
(c) Mast cells
(d) Both T and B cells
16 Read the following
and answer any four questions from 16(i) to 16(v) given below: (4)
The genetic disorders
caused by a single genetic locus are referred to as Mendelian disorders. It is
a type of genetic disorder in humans primarily caused either due to abnormalities
in the genome or changes in a single genome. The condition is found to be
present since birth. These disorders may or may not be inherited
(i) Which of the
following disorder is also called the Royal disease?
(a) Colour blindness
(b) Haemophilia
(c) Sickle cell anaemia
(d) Alzheimer’s disease
(ii) Which of the
following disorder is an example of point mutation?
(a) Sickle cell anaemia5
(b) Down’s syndrome
(c) Night blindness
(d) Thalassemia
(iii) Alpha 1
anti-trypsin deficiency is an autosomal recessive genetic disorder.
What are the chances
that any of the offspring do not express the disease
phenotype if both
parents are genotype (Aa)?
(a) 100 per cent
(b) 75 per cent
(c) 50 per cent
(d) 25 per cent
(iv) Which of the
following is a type of autosomal recessive genetic disorder?
(a) Haemophilia
(b) Skeletal dysplasia
(c) Sickle cell anaemia
(d) None of the above
(v) If the father in a
family has a disease while the mother is normal, the daughters only are
inherited by this disease and not the sons. Name this type of disease?
(a) Autosomal recessive
(b) Autosomal dominant
(c) Sex-linked recessive
(d) Sex-linked dominant
SECTION-B
17 What are heliophytes and sciophytes plants ? (2)
18 Lactational Amenorrhea is a method of contraception
Justify. What is the maximum effectiveness of this method in terms of
period/duration? (2)
19 Give two reasons why both the strands of DNA are not
copied during transcription. (2)
20 Why does the toxic insecticidal protein secreted by
Bacillus thuringiensis kill the insect and not the bacteria itself?
OR
How can DNA segments separated by gel electrophoresis be visualized
and isolated? (2)
21 Name two main steps which are collectively referred to as
down streaming process. Why is this process significant? (2)
22 What is the difference between heterochromatin and euchromatin?
OR
What are competent cells? What does the word “competent”
refer to? (2)
23 How do mycorrhizae act as biofertilisers? Explain. Name a
genus of fungi that forms a mycorrhizal association with plants. (2)
24 Name the various levels of biodiversity. Which one is the
basis of speciation? (2)
25 State a difference between endemic and exotic species? (2)
SECTION-C
26 Mention any three vectors-less methods that are used to
introduce recombinant DNA into a competent host cell. (3)
27 Give an example for: (3)
(a) An endothermic animal
(b) An ectothermic animal
(c) An organism of benthic zone
OR
a. Calculate the death
rate if 6 individuals in a laboratory population of 60 fruit flies died during
a particular week.
b. In biological control
method, one living organism is used against another to check its uncontrolled
growth. Which kind of population interaction is involved in this?
c. An organism has to
overcome stressful condition for a limited period of time. Which strategies can
it adopt to do so?
28 Fill in the blanks spaces a, b, c, d, e, and f, given in
the following table: (3)
Sr. No. |
Name of Organism |
Commercial Product |
Application |
1. |
Pencilium notatum |
Penicillin |
(a) |
2. |
(b) |
Lactic acid Making |
Curd |
3. |
Streptococcus |
Clot buster enzyme |
(c ) |
4. |
Trichoderma polysporum |
(d) |
Immuno |
5. |
Saccharomyces cerevisiae |
Ethanol |
(e) |
6. |
(f) |
Swiss cheese |
Food Product |
29 How would you find out the genotype of a pea plant with
violet flowers? Explain with the help of Punnets’ square showing crosses. (3)
30 Continued self-pollination lead to inbreeding depression.
List three devices, which flowering plant have developed to discourage self-pollination?
(3)
SECTION-D
31 (5)
(a) Read the graph given above. Correlate the
ovarian events that take place in the human female according to the level of
the pituitary hormone during the following day.
(i) 10th – 14th days
(ii) 14th –15th days
(iii) 16th – 23th days
(iv) 25th – 29th days
(If the ovum is not fertilized)
(b) What are the uterine
events that follow beyond 29th day if the ovum is not fertilized?
(c)What is meant by L.H.
Surge? Write the role of L.H.
OR
1. Failure of testes to
descend into scrotal sacs leads to sterility. Why?
2. Both vaccine and
colostrum produce immunity. Name type of immunity produced by these.
3. How many sperms will
be produced from 10 primary spermatocytes and how many eggs will be produced
from 10 primary oocytes?
4. The spermatogonial
cell has 46 chromosomes in human male. Give the number of chromosomes in – (a)
Primary spermatocyte (b) Spermatid
5. In ovary which
structure transforms as corpus luteum and name the hormone secreted by corpus
luteum?
32 What is meant by semi
conservative replication? How did Meselson and Stahl prove it experimentally? (5)
OR
What does the lac operon
consist of? How is the operator switch turned on and off in the expression of
genes in this operon? Explain.
33 The pathogen of a
disease depends on RBCs of human for growth and reproduction. The person with
this pathogen suffers with chill and high fever. (5)
(a) Identify the
disease.
(b) Name the pathogen.
(c) What is the cause of
fever?
(d) Represent the life
cycle of the pathogen diagrammatically
OR
The immune system of a
person is supressed. He was found positive for a pathogen in the diagnostic
test ELISA.
(a) Name the disease,
the patient is suffering from.
(b) Which pathogen is
identified by ELISA test?
(c) Which cells of the
body are attacked by the pathogen?
(d) Suggest preventive measure of the infection.
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